Question 1
A 6-year-old with a fractured femur in skeletal traction received oral oxycodone thirty minutes ago. The pain score is 6/10, and the nurse observes visible muscle spasms in the thigh. What is the most appropriate action?
▸ Why D is the answer
High pain scores associated with orthopedic injuries are frequently driven by muscle spasms, which require a targeted muscle relaxant rather than simply increasing opioid doses. Oral oxycodone has not yet reached its peak effect at thirty minutes, making Option A premature. Option B is strictly contraindicated as releasing traction disrupts bone alignment and worsens the injury. Option C is contraindicated because applying heat to an acute fracture can increase edema and bleeding.
🔑 Key takeaway
Unrelieved pain accompanied by muscle spasms requires targeted treatment with a skeletal muscle relaxant.

