Question 1
A 45-year-old African American female presents with a six-month history of heavy menstrual bleeding. During the bimanual pelvic examination, the nurse practitioner palpates a firm, irregularly enlarged, non-tender uterus. Which conclusion is most appropriate?
βΈ Why D is the answer
A 45-year-old African American female with heavy menstrual bleeding and a firm, irregularly enlarged, non-tender uterus has classic physical exam findings for fibroids. Option D is correct because a uterine leiomyoma presents as a firm, nodular, and irregularly shaped uterus on bimanual examination. Option A is incorrect because adenomyosis typically presents with a symmetrically enlarged, boggy, and tender uterus, rather than a firm and irregular one. Option B is incorrect as endometrial hyperplasia causes abnormal bleeding but does not cause gross, firm, irregular uterine enlargement palpable on exam. Option C is incorrect because endometriosis typically presents with pelvic pain, dyspareunia, and fixed adnexal masses or nodularity, rather than an irregularly enlarged uterus.
π Key takeaway
A firm, irregularly enlarged, and non-tender uterus on a bimanual exam is the classic presentation of uterine leiomyomas.
