Question 1
A 28-year-old male presents with a cough for 9 weeks. He reports frequent throat clearing and nasal congestion but denies heartburn, wheezing, or shortness of breath. Examination of the oropharynx reveals a cobblestone appearance with clear mucoid drainage. Lung auscultation is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial intervention?
▸ Why A is the answer
The patient exhibits classic signs of upper airway cough syndrome, formerly known as post-nasal drip, which is the most common cause of chronic cough in adults. The history of throat clearing combined with oropharyngeal cobblestoning strongly supports a trial of a first-generation antihistamine and decongestant, which acts empirically to dry mucosal secretions. Option B is incorrect because a proton pump inhibitor targets acid reflux, which does not cause nasal congestion or cobblestoning. Option C is incorrect because a chest radiograph is unnecessary for a classic upper airway presentation lacking lower respiratory red flags. Option D is incorrect as inhaled corticosteroids treat asthma or eosinophilic bronchitis, not upper airway secretions. Utilizing an empiric trial for this syndrome is a cost-effective, guideline-supported approach that confirms the diagnosis upon symptom resolution.
🔑 Key takeaway
Upper airway cough syndrome is empirically treated with a first-generation antihistamine and decongestant combination.
